The Anglo-Nigerian pair of Fikayo Tomori and Tammy Abraham who play for Chelsea are set to put pen to paper, committing their futures to the Stamford Bridge.
The West London club have begun negotiations to improve contracts to Abraham and Tomori.
According to a report by the Guardian, both players have been earmarked for an improved five-year contract. Both players have been incredible under the tutelage of Frank Lampard even going on to score in their last Premier League game.
Tammy Abraham, 21 has netted seven times in seven competitive games including a spectacular hattrick against Wolves.
The striker who has been on loan to Bristol City and Aston Villa has been outstanding this term and has his current contract which he signed in 2017 running through to 2022. During his loan spells, the forward poured an impressive total of 52 goals.
Same can be said for Tomori who has repeatedly put up a spectacular showing. The defender has started the last three competitive games after coming in for injured Rudiger four games away.
This isn’t the first time Tomori would play under Lampard. The defender was ever-present while he was on loan at Derby County under Lampard’s watch.
In an interesting tale of events, Lampard and Tomori’s Derby County reached the Championship play-off finals only for them to lose to Tammy Abraham’s Aston Villa. His current deal at the Stamford Bridge runs till 2021.
This move suggests that the pair are a vital part of Lampard’s rebuilding project.
The international allegiance of both players have also been a subject of speculation. Both Tomori and Abraham can play for either Nigeria or England but are yet to make a decision on what side of the divide they choose to play for.
Chelsea were thumped by one goal in their Champions League Group H opener with Valencia.